Thursday, September 28, 2017

Cisco certification 210-065 CIVND sample questions | Passtcert

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below.
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing? 
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder 
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000 
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000 
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000 
Answer: C

Which two codecs are supported on the Cisco Video Surveillance 6400E IP Camera? (Choose two.) 
A. H.263 
B. H.264 
C. H.265 
D. VP8 
E. G.711 
F. MP3 
G. G.729 
Answer: B, E

Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.) 
A. auto-attendant 
B. ClearPath 
C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers 
D. Cascading 
E. Active presence for all devices 
F. Support for Conductor 
G. Native scheduling capabilities 
Answer: B, D, E, F

Which three features are supported by Cisco TMSPE? (Choose three.) 
A. Simplified provisioning 
B. LDAP user import 
C. Scheduling via Microsoft Outlook 
D. FindMe 
E. Jabber for Windows 
F. Automatic endpoint upgrades 
Answer: A, B, D

Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. 
Which feature needs to be enabled and configured? 
A. Smart Scheduler 
B. Low-touch Provisioning 
C. FindMe 
D. CMR Provisioning 
Answer: C

Which Cisco video endpoints run on the Android operating system? 
A. EX-Series 
B. DX-Series 
C. C-Series 
D. MXP-Series 
Answer: B

In the H.264 video codec, which type of video frame is sent when the remote side requests a fast picture update? 
A. I-frame 
B. P-frame 
C. B-frame 
D. C-frame 
Answer: A

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Wednesday, September 27, 2017

Valid MCSA SQL Server 2012/2014 70-461 test answers | Passtcert

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Share some MCSA 70-461 exam questions and answers below.
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named Products. 
The Products table has the following definition: 



You need to create an audit record only when either the RetailPrice or WholeSalePrice column is updated. 
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? 
A. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS 
IF CCLUMNS_CHANGED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice) 
- - Create Audit Records 
B. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS 
IF EXISTS(SELECT RetailPrice from inserted) OR 
EXISTS (SELECT WholeSalePnce FROM inserted) 
- - Create Audit Records 
C. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS 
IF COLUMNS_UPDATED(RetailPrice, WholesalePrice) 
- - Create Audit Records 
D. CREATE TRIGGER TrgPriceChange ON Products FOR UPDATE AS 
IF UPDATE(RetailPrice) OR UPDATE(WholeSalePrice) 
- - Create Audit Records 
Answer: D 


You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code. 
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers. 
Which stored procedure option should you use? 
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY 
B. ENCRYPTION 
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE 
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT 
Answer: B 


You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application. 
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales person. 
Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.) 
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer 
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) 
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer 
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) 
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer 
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) 
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer 
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson) 
Answer: B, D

You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains tables named Customers and Orders.The tables are related by a column named CustomerID. 
You need to create a query that meets the following requirements: 
Returns the CustomerName for all customers and the OrderDate for any orders that they have placed. 
Results must include customers who have not placed any orders. 
Which Transact-SQL query should you use? 
A. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate 
FROM Customers 
RIGHT OUTER JOIN Orders 
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID 
B. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate 
FROM Customers 
JOIN Orders 
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID 
C. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate 
FROM Customers 
CROSS JOIN Orders 
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID 
D. SELECT CustomerName, OrderDate 
FROM Customers 
LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders 
ON Customers.CustomerID = Orders.CustomerID 
Answer: D

You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. 
You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition. 



You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. 
What should you do? 
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view. 
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view. 
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause. 
D. Create a clustered index on the view. 
Answer: D 


CORRECT TEXT 
You have a view that was created by using the following code: 



You need to create an inline table-valued function named Sales.fn_OrdersByTerritory, which must meet the following requirements: 
• Accept the @T integer parameter. 
• Use one-part names to reference columns. 
• Filter the query results by SalesTerritoryID. 
• Return the columns in the same order as the order used in OrdersByTerritoryView. 
Which code segment should you use? To answer, type the correct code in the answer area. 
Answer: 




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Sunday, September 24, 2017

Valid 210-060 CICD CCNA Collaboration test

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Share some CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
User A needs to have a line shared on the user B phone. Both phones register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which method can be used from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web pages to configure a shared line on the user B phone? 
A. Navigate to the user B phone > Add the user A DN. 
B. Navigate to the user B phone > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
C. Navigate to DN configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
D. Navigate to end user configuration > Shared Line > Add the user A DN. 
Answer: A

A user needs to access CAR logs to adjust settings. Which two options are required? (Choose two.) 
A. The user account has the Standard CAR Admin Users role. 
B. The user must log in at https://:8443/car/Logon.jsp.
C. The user must log in at https://:8443/cdr/Logon.jsp.
D. The user account has the CTI Enabled role.
E. The user account has the Standard CAR role.
Answer: A,B

Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Answer: A,B,C

A voice engineer is moving an IP phone from one secure Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster to another. The phones are not registering to the new cluster. Which task resolves this issue?
A. reset the phones
B. restart the phones
C. delete the CTL file from each phone manually
D. use the Bulk Administration Tool to import the phones
Answer: C

A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Answer: A

Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
Answer: A,C

A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Answer: A

On the PSTN gateway, a network engineer runs sh isdn status and finds the Layer 2 state of each interface to be "TEI_ASSIGNED". What is the status of PSTN connectivity from this gateway?
A. The T1 interfaces are established and operational.
B. This information does not indicate the status of PSTN connectivity from the gateway.
C. The T1 interfaces are down.
D. The T1 interfaces are being tested by the carrier.
Answer: C

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Thursday, September 21, 2017

Update Cisco CCNP 300-135 TSHOOT certificatioon guides

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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below.
What is the solution to the fault condition? 
A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
B. Under the interface Loopback6 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
C. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 ospf 6 area 34 command. 
D. Under ipv6 router ospf 6 configuration enter the redistribute rip RIP_ZONE include-connected command. 
Answer: D

Which command will limit debug output ppp authentication on serial 0/1 and serial 0/2? 
A. debug condition interface range s0/1 -0/2 
debug ppp authentication 
B. debug condition interface s0/1 & 0/2 
debug ppp authentication 
C. debug int s0/1 
debug int 0/2 
debug ppp authentication 
D. Debug condition interface s0/1 
Debug condition interface s0/2 
debug ppp authentication 
Answer: D

What is the solution to the fault condition? 
A. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel mode ipv6 command. 
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0.34 configuration enter the ipv6 address 2026::34:1/122 command. 
C. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration enter the ip address unnumbered Serial0/0/0.34 command. 
D. Under the interface Tunnel34 configuration delete the tunnel source Serial0/0/0.34 command and enter the tunnel source 2026::34:1/122 command. 
Answer: A

Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped. 
What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately) 
A. MTU does not match 
B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly 
C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel 
D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡± 
E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination 
Answer: C

What is the solution of the fault condition? 
A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command 
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command 
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as the AS number. 
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. 
Answer: D

Ticket 5 R1ACL 

TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT: 
The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). 
show run by yourself to obtain the following information: 
Client 1 is not able to reach the WebServer at 209.65.200.241. Initial troubleshooting shows that R1 is also not able to reach the WebServer. R1 also does not have any active BGP neighbor. 
Configuration on R1 
! interface Serial0/0/0/1 
description link to ISP 
ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 
ip access-group edge_security in 
ip nat outside 
ip virtual-reassembly 
ntp brasdcast client 
net broadcast key 1 
no cdp enable 
!! ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 
ip access-list nat_traffic permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 
! ip access-list edge_security deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 172.16.0.0 0.15.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security deny ip 127.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any 
ip access-list edge_security permit ip host 209.65.200.241 any 

On which device is the fault condition located? 
A. R1 
B. R2 
C. R3 
D. R4 
E. DSW1 
F. DSW2 
G. ASW1 
Answer: A 


The Fault Condition is related to which technology? 
A. BGP 
B. NAT 
C. IP NAT 
D. IPv4 OSPF Routing 
E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution 
F. IPv6 OSPF Routing 
G. IPv4 layer 3 security 
Answer: C 


What is the solution of the fault condition? 
A. Under the BGP process,enter the bgp redistribute-internal command 
B. Under the BGP process, bgp confederation identifier 65001 command 
C. Delete the current BGP process and reenter all of the commands using 65002 as theAS number. 
D. Under the BGP process, delete the neighbor 209.56.200.226 remote-as 65002 command enter the neighbor 209.65.200.226 remote-as 65002 command. 
Answer: D 


What is the solution of the fault condition? 
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command 
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command 
C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command 
D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command 
Answer: C

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Wednesday, September 20, 2017

Update CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-125 real exam questions

The 200-125 examination certification, as other world-renowned certification, will get international recognition and acceptance. People around the world prefer 200-125 exam certification to make their careers more strengthened and successful. In Passtcert, you can choose the CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-125 real exam questions which are suitable for your learning ability to learn.In the such a brilliant era of IT industry in the 21st century competition is very fierce.
Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem? 
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased line. 
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line. 
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone line. 
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line. 
Answer: D

During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed? 
A. the PPP Session phase 
B. Phase 2 
C. the Active Discovery phase 
D. the Authentication phase 
E. Phase 1 
Answer: A

Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route? 
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201 
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1 
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default 
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1 
Answer: A

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router? 
A. 5 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 
Answer: B

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) 
A. exactly one active router 
B. one or more standby routers 
C. one or more backup virtual routers 
D. exactly one standby active router 
E. exactly one backup virtual router 
Answer: AD

If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send? 
A. 0-4 
B. 0-5 
C. 0-6 
D. 0-2 
E. 0-1 
Answer: C

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